Abstract

I want to pull together some well-known facts which, when taken together, provide us with a plausible, and I think persuasive, argument that Aristotle's logic is inconsistent. We cannot, of course, hope to show that it is formally inconsistent since he does not present us with a fully worked-out formal system. On the other hand, we do have Lukasiewicz's formal version of Aristotelian logic which he proves consistent. (edited)